Sample test from Winter 1990 test for Biology 252 Forbes 1. Recent evidence suggests that there may be as many as ___ species of living organisms - perhaps more! a) 1,000,000; b) 1,500,000; c) 15,000,000; d) 30,000,000; e) 100,000,000. 2. Most species of living organisms are in the Kingdom: a) Protoctista; b) Plantae; c) Fungi; d) Monera; e) Animalia. 3. Which of the following is charactistic of eukaryotes but not of prokaryotes? a) mitochondria; b) plasmids; c) a circular "genophore"; d) all these characterize eukaryotes; e) both a and b are characteristic of eukaryotes, but c is not. 4. Protoctists: a) are all single-celled organisms; b) are all heterotrophic; c) are mostly parasitic; d) b and-c are both right; e) none of these answers is correct. 5. In contrast to most plant-like protoctists, the protozoa: a) are heterotrophic; b) lack cellulose or similar structural carbohydrates; c) are all minute, never more than 0.01 mm in greatest dimension; d) can remain normally active even in dry air; e) a and b are right, but c and d are wrong. 6. Endamoeba histolytica, the causative agent of amoebic dysentery, is a notorious member of the phylum: a) Rhizopoda; b) Sporozoa; c) Bacillariophyta; d) Ciliophora; e) Myxomycota. 7. The most widespread means of reproduction among the phyla of animal protoctists is: a) conjugation; b) asexual reproduction by means of fragmentation; c) asexual reproduction by means of binary fission; d) asexual reproduction by means of budding; e) all phyla of animal protoctists typically employ all these modes of reproduction. B. As agents of human disease and suffering, which of the following rates the highest? a) Rhizopoda; b) Sporozoa; c) Foraminifera; d) Actinopoda; e) Euglenophyta. 9. Members of some groups of animal protoctists are characterized by having shells which they secrete about themselves. One such group is the: a) foraminiferans; b) heliazoans and radiolarians; c) sporozoans; d) both a and b are correct; e) a, b, and c are all correct. 10. When a human is bitten by a mosquito carrying malarial parasites, the stage injected into the human is the: a) sporozoite; b) merozoite; c) gametocyte; d) oocyte; e) mature gametes. 11. The vector of African sleeping sickness is a/an: a) amoeba; b) mosquito; c) trypanosome; d) sporozoan; e) tse-tse fly. 12. If a protoctist previously unknown to science were described to you as having a macronucleus and two micronuclei per cell and also having a high degree of subcellular specialization, you should suspect the creature of being a/an: a) ciliophoran; b) green alga; c) animal flagellate; d) amoeba; e) sly mold. 13. The division (=phylum) of algae with the largest number of described species is the: a) Dinoflagellata; b) Chlarophyta; c) Phaeophyta; d) Bacillariophyta; e) Euglenophyta. 14. The algae responsible for the occasional summertime warnings that clams, mussels, etc., are unsafe to eat are: a) red algae; b) dinoflagellates; c) diatoms; d) golden algae; e) brown algae. 15. Among the algae there are found numerous photosynthetic and accessory pigments. The photosynthetic pigment common to all the algae, however, is: a) chlorophyll a; b) chlorophyll b; c) chlorophyll d; d) fucoxanthin; e) beta-carotene. 16. The Chlorophyta are the algal group thought most likely to have included the ancestors of the-Plantae. Evidence supporting this view includes: a) both groups having starch as their carbohydrate storage compound; b) both groups having the same photosynthetic pigments; c) both groups having cell walls made of cellulose; d) all these support the view cited; e) none of these statements is true. 17. One of the trends in multicellular body form is the tetrasporine trend. A common alga in Oregon's coastal waters that shows this trend is: a) Volvox; b) Chlamydomonas; c; Hydrodictyon; d) Ulva; e) Euglena. 18. The world's largest living protoctists are certain members of the; a) Dinoflagellata; b) Chrysophyta; c) Phaeophyta; d) Rhodophyta; e) Chlorophyta. 19. You recall, I am sure, the three "kinds" of meiosis. We, as animals, and a number of kinds of algae have the type in which certain cells in diploid bodies undergo meiosis and become gametes, which (if of compatible types) can later join to produce a diploid zygote. This is an example of ___ meiosis: a) sporic; b) gametic; c) zygotic; d) conjugal; e) isogamous. 20. The idea that a large ancestral prokaryotic cell was "invaded" by smaller prokaryotes and that mutually beneficial relationships evolved between them leading to what we now know as eukaryotes, is the: a) autogenous hypothesis of eukaryotic origins; b) the siphonous trend; c) the volvicine trend; d) the endosymbiotic hypothesis of eukaryotic origins; e) the acrasiomycotan model for origin of the fungi. 21. The oldest known fossils of reasonably large, multicellular organisms are in rocks dated at about ______ years of age: a) 700,000; b) 7,000,000; c) 70,000,000; d) 700,000,000; e) 3,000,000,000. 22. Members of the Kingdom Plantae exhibit which kind of meiosis? a) gametic; b) sporic; c) zygotic; d) vegetative; e) casual. 23. Features such as cuticle, stomata and supporting and vascular tissues are thought to represent: a) adaptations for life an land; b) adaptations that make seeds more attractive to potential dispersers; c) adaptations associated with a dominant gametophyte stage in the life cycle; d) adaptations associated with life as a facultative heterotroph; e) adaptations that protect the seed from desiccation. 24. An embryo, a quantity of stored food, and a surrounding coat comprise a/an: a) ovary; b) ovule; c) seed; d) fruit; e) embryo sac. 25. Which of the following is the best definition of a fruit? a) a ripened ovary; b) an immature female gametophyte; c) an ovulate cone; d) a zygote; e) a developing sporophyte within an archegonium. 26. The green, leafy part of a moss is the: a) protonema; b) mature sporophyte; c) calyptra;- d) archegonium; e) gametophyte. 27. In contrast to bryophytes, ferns: a) have vascular tissue; b) have a dominant, photosynthetic sporophyte; c) lack spores; d) a and b; e) a, b, and c. 28. In a pine seed, the nutritive tissue surrounding the embryo is: a) haploid; b) diploid; c) dikaryotic; d) triploid; e) tetraploid. 29. The female parts of a flower include the: a) anther and filament; b) stigma, style and ovary; c) petals and sepals; d) stamens and receptacle; e) anthers and petals. 30. The process known as double fertilization: a) occurs only in angiosperms; b) involves the fertilization of an egg by two sperm-nuclei; c) involves the fertilization of an egg by one sperm nucleus and the union of another sperm nucleus with two polar nuclei to form a 3n endosperm nucleus; d) a and b; e) a and c. 31. Flatworms and humans might seem not to have much in common, but two features they share are: a) having a coelom and a complete digestive tract; b) being bilateral and triploblastic; c) being radial and pseudocoelomate; d) being acoelomate and protostomous; e) having radial cleavage and radial symmetry. 32. The cnidarians are, like other phyla, characterized by having certain specialized structures. In the case of the cnidarians, such a characteristic structure is: a) a schizocoelom; b) collar cells; c) a radula; d) the nematocyst; e) more than one of these is correct. 33. The presence of a trochophore larva characterizes the: a) analids; b) echinoderms; c) nematodes; d) flatworms; e) more than one of these? 34. Animals that have determinate cleavage: a) cannot have identical twins; b) always have radial symmetry; c) never have a complete digestive tract; d) are all sponges; e) a, b, and c are all correct. 35. Echinoderms and chordates might seem unlikely to be related to each other, but one piece of evidence linking them is that both: a) are acoelomate; b) are deuterostomous; c) have indeterminate cleavage; d) a and b are both correct; e) b and c are both correct. 36. Flukes have a life cycle characterized by the presence of a larva that: a) enters a snail; b) is known as a cysticercus; c) is known as an amphiblastula; d) is spread by the bite of a mosquito; e) b and d. 37. Knowing what you should about analogy and homology, which of the following statements is true? a) the mouths of an annelid and of a chordate are homologous as mouths; b) the mouths of an annelid and a chordate are analogous as mouths; c) the mouths of an annelid and a chordate are both analogous and homologous as mouths. (No d or e choices.) 38. Radial cleavage characterizes: a) only radially symmetrical animals; b) all bilaterally symmetrical animals; c) the animals that are also schizocoelous; d) the -animals that also have indeterminate cleavage; e) d and e are both correct. 39. As you dissect an animal new to science, you discover that it has a radula and a mantle. As a battle-hardened Bi 252 veteran, you should immediately place the creature in the phylum: a) Chordata; b) Mollusca; c) Arthropoda; d) Annelida; e) Echinodermata. 40. There aren't many phyla of animals that include members that can live in dry air. Three that do are the: a) flatworms, arthropods and chordates; b) annelids, arthropods and molluscs; c) chordates, arthropods and molluscs; d) chordates, annelids and arthropods; e) arthropods, molluscs and nematodes. 41. Think again about your lessons in analogy, homology and other stuff, then pick the true statement from among the following: a) the jaws of arthropods and vertebrates are homologous as jaws; b) the jaws of arthropods and vertebrates are analogous as jaws; c) the legs of arthropods and vertebrates are homologous as legs; d) the chitin of arthropods and the bone of vertebrates are homologous as skeletal structures; e) a, c and d are all true. 42. There aren't many major phyla of animals whose members are all marine. Which of the following is such a group? a) Olorifera; b) Cnidaria; c) Platyhelminthes; d) Mollusca; e) Echinodermata. 43. The vertebrate class that includes the immediate ancestors of both the birds and the mammals is the: a) jawless fishes; b) ray-finned bony fishes; c) amphibians; d) reptiles; e) tunicates. 44. Such attractive creatures as spiders, scorpions and ticks are examples of: a) mandibulate arthropods; b) arachnids; c) insects; d) crustaceans; e) a and c. 45. Barnacles, crabs and sawbugs are all examples of the Class: a) Crustacea; b) Insecta; c) Chilopoda; d) Diplopoda; e) Arachnida. 46. Among the major features distinguishing the reptiles from the amphibians is: a) the presence of lungs in reptiles but not in amphibians; b) the presence of the amniote egg in reptiles but not in amphibians; c) the presence of "tetrapod limbs" in reptiles, but only lateral fins in amphibians; d) endothermy in living reptiles but not in amphibians; e) all of these answers are correct. 47. Which of the following is a parasite you are most likely to acquire by eating inadequately cooked flesh? a) a tapeworm; b) an earthworm; c) an acorn worm; d) a leech; e) malarial parasites. 48. If you have a sexually reproducing parasite living in your intestine, you have become the_____ for that parasite: a) definitive host; b) first intermediate host; c) second intermediate host; d) causative agent; e) either b or c. 49. In an enterocoelous animal, the coelom: a) develops from outpocketings arising from the primitive gut; b) develops from the splitting of buds of mesoderm early in development; c) arises as a result of spiral cleavage; d) becomes the digestive tract; e) c and d. 50. Which of the following should you associate with the protostomes? a) spiral cleavage; b) determinate cleavage; c) having a schizocoelom; d) having an enterocoelom; e) a, b, and c are correct, but not d.